Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 02:18
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Speech by Governor Kugler on the economic outlook and monetary policy - Federal Reserve Board (.gov)
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Do you like to wear a see-through skirt?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What is the funniest joke you've been told that you still think about to this day?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.